Introduction to UPSC Prelims 2024 Solution

Welcome to Precrack! The time has finally come. Today, on the 16^th of June 2024, UPSC has conducted the UPSC Prelims 2024 Exam. As candidates sit in the exam halls and answer the questions, it is also our duty to provide them with the correct answers.

* UPSC Prelims 2024 Solved Papers – GS Paper 1 – Question & Answers – 1 to 5*

Question-1: Consider the Following statements

Statement-1: The Atmosphere is heated more by incoming solar radiation than terrestrial radiation

Statement-2: Carbon dioxide and other greenhouse gases in the atmosphere are good absorber of long wave radiation

Which one of the following is correct in respect of above statements?

A) Both state-1 and state-2 are correct and state-2 explains state-1

B) Both state-1 and state-2 are correct, but state-2 does not explain state-1

C) State-1 is correct but state-2 is not

D) State-1 is incorrect but state-2 is correct

Answer: (D) State-1 is incorrect but state-2 is correct

Question-2: Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Thickness of the troposphere at the equator is much greater as compared to poles.

Statement-II: At the equator, heat is transported to great heights by strong convectional currents.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

A) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I

B) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are Statement-II does not correct, but explain Statement-I

C) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect

D) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

Answer: (A)

Question-3: Consider the Following:

1. Pyroclastic Debris
2. Ash and Dust
3. Nitrogen Compounds
4. Sulphur Compounds

How many of the above are products of Volcanic Eruption?

A) Only one

B) Only two
C) Only Three
D) All Four

Answer: (C) – To determine which of the listed items are products of volcanic eruptions, let’s analyze each one:

1. Pyroclastic Debris: Yes, this is a product of volcanic eruptions. It includes fragments of rock and volcanic glass.
2. Ash and Dust: Yes, volcanic eruptions produce ash and dust, which are small particles of pulverized rock and volcanic glass.
3. Nitrogen Compounds: No, nitrogen compounds are not typically produced in significant quantities by volcanic eruptions.
4. Sulphur Compounds: Yes, volcanic eruptions release sulphur compounds, including sulfur dioxide (SO₂), into the atmosphere.

So, three of the four listed items are products of volcanic eruptions.

Therefore, the correct option is:

C) Only Three

Question-4: Which of the following is/are correct inferece/inferences from usothermal maps in the Month of January?

1. The isotherms deviate to the north over the ocean and to the south over the continent.
2. The Presence of cold ocean currents, Gulf Stream and North Atlantic Drift make the North Atlantic Ocean colder and isotherm bend toward the north

Select the answer using given code below:

A) 1 only

B) 2 only
C) Both 1 and 2
D) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (C)

Let’s analyze each statement:

• The isotherms deviate to the north over the ocean and to the south over the continent.
  • This statement is generally correct. Isotherms tend to deviate to the north over warmer ocean currents and to the south over colder land masses in January due to the differential heating and cooling effects of land and water.
• The Presence of cold ocean currents, Gulf Stream, and North Atlantic Drift make the North Atlantic Ocean colder and isotherms bend toward the north.
  • This statement is also correct. Cold ocean currents like the Labrador Current and the Canary Current, along with warm currents like the Gulf Stream and North Atlantic Drift, influence the temperature distribution in the North Atlantic Ocean. The presence of these currents can indeed cause isotherms to bend northward in certain regions.

Given these explanations, both statements are correct.

Therefore, the correct option is:

C) Both 1 and 2

Question-5: Which of the following countries are well known as the two largest cocoa produceers in the world?

A) Algeria and Morocco

B) Botswana and Namibia
C) Cote d’Ivoire and Ghana
D) Madagascar and Mozambique

Answer: (C)

* UPSC Prelims 2024 Solved Papers – GS Paper 1 – Question & Answers – 6 to 10*

Question-6: With the reference to the Himalayan River joining the Ganga Downstream of Prayagraj from West to East, which one of the following Sequence is currect?

A) Ghahara-Gomati-Gandak-Kosi

B) Gomati-Ghaghara-Gandak -Kosi
C) Ghaghara-Gomti-Kosi-Gandak
D) Gomati-Ghaghara-Kosi-Gandak

Answer: (B)

To determine the correct sequence of Himalayan rivers joining the Ganga downstream of Prayagraj (Allahabad) from west to east, Let’s identify the correct sequence:

1.       Ghaghara (also known as Sarayu): It joins the Ganga from the west.

2.       Gomati (also known as Gumti): It joins the Ganga from the west.

3.       Gandak: It joins the Ganga from the west.

4.       Kosi: It joins the Ganga from the east.

Based on this, the correct sequence is:

A) Ghaghara-Gomati-Gandak-Kosi

Answer: (A) – Ghaghara-Gomati-Gandak-Kosi

Question-7: Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Rainfall is one of the reasons for weathering of rocks.

Statement-II: Rain water contains carbon dioxide in solution.

Statement-III: Rain water contains atmospheric oxygen.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

A) Both Statement-II and Statement-III are correct and both of them explain Statement-I

B) Both Statement-II and Statement-III are correct, but only one of them explains Statement-I
C) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement-I
D) Neither Statement-II nor Statement-III is correct

Answer: (A)

Question-8: Consider the following countries:

1. Finland
2. Germany
3. Norway
4. Russia

How many of the above countries have a border with the North Sea?

A) Only one

B) Only two
C) Only three
D) All four

Answer: (B)

Question-9: Consider the Following Information:

In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?

A) Only one

B) Only Two
C) All Three
D) None

Answer: (B)

Let’s analyze each row of information provided:

• Dhuandhar, Malawa, Narmada
  • Dhuandhar Waterfall is located on the Narmada River in the Malwa region. This information is correct.
• Hundru, Chota Nagpur, Subarnarekha
  • Hundru Waterfall is located on the Subarnarekha River in the Chota Nagpur Plateau region. This information is correct.
• Gersoppa, Western Ghats, Netravati
  • Gersoppa (Jog Falls) is located on the Netravati River in the Western Ghats region. This information is correct.

Based on the analysis, all three rows provide correctly matched information.

Therefore, the correct option is:

C) All Three

Question-10: Consider the following information:

In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?

A) Only One

B) Only Two
C) Only Three
D) All Four

Answer: (B)

Let’s analyze each row of information provided:

• Central Asia, Vosges, Fold Mountain
  • Vosges Mountains are located in Europe, not in Central Asia. This information is incorrect.
• Europe, Alps, Block Mountain
  • The Alps are indeed located in Europe and are a type of block mountain (fault-block mountain). This information is correct.
• North America, Appalachians, Fold Mountain
  • The Appalachian Mountains in North America are fold mountains. This information is correct.
• South America, Andes, Fold Mountain
  • The Andes Mountains in South America are also fold mountains. This information is correct.

Based on the analysis:

• Row 1 is incorrect.
• Rows 2, 3, and 4 are correct.

Therefore, the correct option is:

B) Only Two

* UPSC Prelims 2024 Solved Papers – GS Paper 1 – Question & Answers – 11 to 15*
Question-11: Consider the following airports:

1. Donyi Polo Airport
2. Kushinagar International Airport
3. Vijayawada International Airport

In the recent past, which of the above have been constructed as Greenfield projects?

A) 1 and 2 only

B) 2 and 3 only
C) 1 and 3 only
D) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (A)

Question-12: With reference to ” water vapour “, which of the following statements is / are correct?

1. It is a gas, the amount of which decreases with altitude.
2. Its percentage is maximum at the poles.

Select the answer using the code given below:

A) 1 only

B) 2 only
C) Both 1 and 2
D) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (A)

Question-13: Consider the following description:

1. Annual and daily range of temperatures is low.
2. Precipitation occurs throughout the year.
3. Precipitation varies between 50 cm 250 cm.

What is this type of climate?

A) Equatorial Climate

B) China Type Climate
C) Humid Subtropical Climate
D) Marin West Coast Climate

Answer: (B)

Question-14: With reference to “Coriolis force”, which of the following statements is / are correct?

1. It increases with increase in wind velocity.
2. It is maximum at the poles and is absent at the equator.

Select the answer using the code given below:

A) 1 only

B) 2 only
C) Both 1 and 2
D) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (C)

Firstly, let’s know what is coriolis Force…

The Coriolis force is an apparent force that arises due to the rotation of the Earth. It affects the motion of objects moving on the Earth’s surface or within its atmosphere. This force deflects moving objects to the right in the Northern Hemisphere and to the left in the Southern Hemisphere, relative to their direction of motion.

Here are some key points about the Coriolis force:

1. Cause: It arises because different points on the Earth’s surface are rotating at different speeds. For example, a point near the equator rotates faster than a point near the poles.
2. Effect on Motion: The Coriolis force deflects moving objects (such as air masses or ocean currents) to the right in the Northern Hemisphere and to the left in the Southern Hemisphere. This deflection is strongest at the poles and diminishes to zero at the equator.

So, Answer is C


Question-15: On June 21 every year, which of the following latitude ( s ) experience ( s ) a sunlight of more than 12 hours?

1. Equator
2. Tropic of Cancer
3. Tropic of Capricorn
4. Arctic Circle

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A) 1 only

B) 2 only
C) 3 and 4
D) 2 and 4

Answer: (D)

*UPSC Prelims 2024 Solved Papers – GS Paper 1 – Question & Answers – 16 to 20*

Question-16: One of the following regions has the world’s largest tropical peatland, which holds about three years worth of global carbon emissions from fossil fuels; and the possible destruction of which can exert detrimental effect on the global climate.

Which one of the following denotes that region?

A) Amazon Basin

B) Congo Basin
C) Kikori Basin
D) Rio De La Plata Basin

Answer: (B)

Question-17: With reference to perfluoroalkyl and polyfluoroalkyl substances ( PFAS ) that are used in making many consumer products consider the following statements:

1. PFAS are found to be widespread in drinking water, food and food packaging materials.
2. PFAS are not easily degraded in the environment.
3. Persistent exposure to PFAS can lead to bioaccumulation in animal bodies.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A) 1 and 2 only

B) 2 and 3 only
C) 1 and 3 only
D) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (D)

Question-18: Consider the following:

1. Carabid beetles
2. Centipedes
3. Flies
4. Termites
5. Wasp

Parasitoid species are found in how many of the above kind of organisms?

A) Only two

B) Only three
C) Only four
D) All five

Answer: (B)

Parasitoid species are organisms that lay eggs on or in other organisms, typically leading to the death of the host organism. Let’s determine which of the listed organisms can host parasitoid species:

1.       Carabid beetles: Some species of carabid beetles can host parasitoid wasps.

2.       Centipedes: Centipedes are not known to host parasitoid species.

3.       Flies: Many species of flies can host parasitoid wasps.

4.       Termites: Termites are not typically hosts for parasitoid species.

5.       Wasp: Some species of wasps are themselves parasitoids.

Based on this analysis, the organisms that can host parasitoid species are:

1.       Carabid beetles

2.       Flies

3.       Wasp

Therefore, the correct answer is:

B) Only three

Question-19: Consider the following plants:

1. Groundnut
2. Horse-gram
3. Soybean

How many of the above belong to the pea family?

A) Only one

B) Only two
C) All three
D) None

Answer: (C)

Question-20: Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: The Indian Flying Fox is placed under the “vermin” in category the Wild life (Protection) Act, 1972.

Statement-II: The Indian Flying Fox feeds on the blood of other animals.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

A) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I

B) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
C) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
D) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

Answer: (C)

*UPSC Prelims 2024 Solved Papers – GS Paper 1 – Question & Answers – 21 to 25*

Question-21: The organisms ” Cicada, Froghopper and Pond skater ” are:

A) Birds

B) Fish
C) Insects
D) Reptiles

Answer: (C)

Question-22: Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Many chewing gums found in the market are considered a source of environmental pollution.

Statement-II: Many chewing gums contain plastic as gum base.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

A) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I

B) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
C) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
D) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

Answer: (A)

Question-23: Consider the following pairs:

 Country Animal found in its natural habitat

1. Brazil Indri
2. Indonesia Elk
3. Madagascar Bonobo

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

A) Only one

B) Only two
C) All three
D) None

Answer: (D)

Let’s analyze each pair of country and animal found in its natural habitat:

• Brazil – Indri
  • Indri is actually found in Madagascar, not Brazil. This pair is incorrect.
• Indonesia – Elk
  • Elk is not found in Indonesia. Elk (scientifically known as Cervus canadensis) are primarily found in North America and Eastern Asia. This pair is also incorrect.
• Madagascar – Bonobo
  • Bonobos are found in the Democratic Republic of Congo and surrounding areas, not in Madagascar. This pair is also incorrect.

Based on the analysis, none of the pairs given above are correctly matched.

Therefore, the correct option is:

D) None

Question-24: Consider the following statements regarding World Toilet Organization:

1. It is one of the agencies of the United
2. World Toilet Summit, World Toilet Day and World Toilet College are the initiatives of this organization, to inspire action to tackle the global sanitation crisis.
3. The main focus of its function is to grant funds to the least developed countries and developing countries to achieve the end of open defecation.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

A) 2 only

B) 3 only
C) 1 and 2
D) 2 and 3

Answer: (A)

Question-25: Consider the following statements:

1. Lions do not have a particular breeding season
2. Unlike most other big cats, cheetahs do not roar.
3. Proclaim Unlike male lions, male leopards do not their territory by scent marking.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A) 1 and 2 only

B) 2 and 3 only
C) 1 and 3 only
D) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (A)

*UPSC Prelims 2024 Solved Papers – GS Paper 1 – Question & Answers –26 to 30*
Question-26: Which one of the following is the correct description of ” 100 Million Farmers “?

A) It is a platform for accelerating the transition towards food and water systems that are net-zero (carbon), nature-positive and that aims to increase farmer resilience.

B) It is an international alliance and a network of individuals and farming organisations interested in supporting and strengthening the development of the organic animal husbandry.
C) It is a digital platform fully integrated with service providers and built on blockchain that lets buyers, sellers and third parties trade fertilizers quickly and securely.
D) It is a platform with the mission of encouraging the farmers to form Farmer Product Organisations or Agribusiness Consortiums, thus facilitating the access to global open markets to sell their products.

Answer: (A)

Question-27: Consider the following:

1. Battery storage
2. Biomass generators
3. Fuel cells
4. Rooftop solar photovoltaic units

How many of the above are considered ” Distributed Energy Resources “?

A) Only one

B) Only two
C) Only three
D) All four

Answer: (D)

Question-28: Which one of the following shows a unique relationship with an insect that has coevolved with it and  that is the only insect that can pollinate this tree?

A) Fig

B) Mahua
C) Sandalwood
D) Silk cotton

Answer: (A)

Question-29: Consider the following:

1. Butterflies
2. Fish
3. Frogs

How many of the above have poisonous species among them?

A) Only one

B) Only two
C) All three
D) None

Answer: (C)

Question-30: Consider the following:

1. Cashew
2. Papaya
3. Red sanders

How many of the above trees are actually native to India?

A) Only one

B) Only two
C) All three
D) None

Answer: (A)

Let’s determine the native status of each tree mentioned:

1. Cashew: Cashew trees (Anacardium occidentale) are native to northeastern Brazil. They were introduced to India by the Portuguese in the 16th century.
2. Papaya: Papaya trees (Carica papaya) are native to the tropical regions of the Americas. They were also introduced to India and are cultivated widely.
3. Red sanders: Red sanders (Pterocarpus santalinus) are native to southern India, particularly the regions of Andhra Pradesh and Karnataka.

Based on this information:

Only one of the trees mentioned is native to India, which is Red sanders.

*UPSC Prelims 2024 Solved Papers – GS Paper 1 – Question & Answers – 31 to 35*

Question-31: With reference to radioisotope thermoelectric generators ( RTGS ), consider the following statements:

1. RTGS are miniature fission reactors.

2. RTGS are used for powering the onboard systems of spacecrafts.

3. RTGS can use Plutonium-238, which is a by-product of weapons development.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A) 1 and 2 only

B) 2 and 3 only
C) 1 and 3 only
D) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (B)

Question-32: Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Giant stars live much longer than dwarf stars.

Statement-II: Compared to dwarf stars, giant stars have a greater rate of nuclear reactions.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

A) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I

B) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
C) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
D) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

Answer: (D)

Question-33: Which one of the following is synthesised in human body that dilates blood vessels and increases blood flow?

A) Nitric oxide

B) Nitrous oxide
C) Nitrogen dioxide
D) Nitrogen pentoxide

Answer: (A)

Question-34: Consider the following activities:

1. Identification of narcotics on passengers at airports or in aircraft
2. Monitoring of precipitation
3. Tracking the migration of animals

In how many of the above activities can the radars be used?

A) Only one

B) Only two
C) All three
D) None

Answer: (C)

Question-35: Consider the following aircraft:

1. Rafael
2. MiG-29
3. Tejas MK-1

How many of the above are considered fifth generation fighter aircraft?

A) Only one

B) Only two
C) All three
D) None

Answer: (D)
To answer this question, we need to know the generations of the mentioned aircraft.

1. Rafale: This is a 4.5 generation fighter aircraft.
2. MiG-29: This is a 4th generation fighter aircraft.
3. Tejas MK-1: This is also a 4th generation fighter aircraft.

None of these aircraft are considered fifth-generation fighter aircraft.

Therefore, the correct option is:

D) None

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*UPSC Prelims 2024 Solved Papers – GS Paper 1 – Question & Answers – 36 to 40*

Question-36: In which of the following are hydrogels used?

1. Controlled drug delivery in patients
2. Mobile air-conditioning systems
3. Preparation of industrial lubricants

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A) 1 only

B) 1 and 2 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (D)

Question-37: Which one of the following is the exhaust pipe emission from Fuel Cell Electric Vehicles, powered by hydrogen?

A) Hydrogen peroxide

B) Hydronium
C) Oxygen
D) Water vapour

Answer: (D)

Question-38: Recently, the term “pumped-storage hydropower” is actually and appropriately discussed in the context of which one of the following?

A) Irrigation of terraced crop fields

B) Lift irrigation of cereal crops
C) Long duration energy storage
D) Rainwater harvesting system

Answer: (C)

Question-39: “Membrane Bioreactors” are often discussed in the context of:

A) Assisted reproductive technologies

B) Drug delivery nanotechnologies
C) Vaccine production technologies
D) Wastewater treatment technologies

Answer: (D)

Question-40: With reference to the Indian economy, “Collateral Borrowing and Landing Obligations” are the instruments of:

A) Bond market

B) Forex market
C) Money market
D) Stock market

Answer: (C)

*UPSC Prelims 2024 Solved Papers – GS Paper 1 – Question & Answers –41 to 45*

Question-41: The total fertility rate in an economy is defined as

A) The number of children born per 1000 people in the population in a year.

B) The number of children born to a couple in their lifetime in a given population.
C) The birth rate minus death rate.
D) The average number of live births a woman would have by the end of her child-bearing age.

Answer: (D)

Question-42: Consider the following statements:

1. In India, Non-Banking Financial Companies can access the Liquidity Adjustment Facility window of the Reserve Bank of India.
2. In India, Foreign Institutional Investors can hold the Government Securities ( G-Secs ).
3. In India, Stock Exchanges can offer separate trading platforms for debts.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

A) 1 and 2 only

B) 3 only
C) 1, 2 and 3
D) 2 and 3 only

Answer: (D)

Question-43: In India, which of the following can trade in Corporate Bonds and Government Securities?

1. Insurance Companies
2. Pension Funds
3. Retail Investors

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A) 1 and 2 only

B) 2 and 3 only
C) 1 and 3 only
D) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (D)

Question-44: Consider the following:

1. Exchange-Traded Funds (ETF)
2. Motor vehicles
3. Currency swap

Which of the above is / are considered financial instruments?

A) 1 only

B) 2 and 3 only
C) 1, 2 and 3
D) 1 and 3 only

Answer: (D)

Question-45: With reference to the sectors of the Indian economy, consider the following pairs:

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

A) Only one

B) Only two
C) Only three
D) All four

Answer: (B)
Let’s analyze each pair of economic activity and its corresponding sector:

• Storage of agricultural produce – Secondary
  • Storage of agricultural produce is part of the primary sector, which involves activities related to agriculture and allied sectors. This pair is incorrect.
• Dairy farm – Primary
  • Dairy farming involves the production of milk and dairy products directly from livestock, which is indeed part of the primary sector. This pair is correct.
• Mineral exploration – Tertiary
  • Mineral exploration is part of the primary sector, which involves the extraction and processing of natural resources. This pair is incorrect.
• Weaving cloth – Secondary
  • Weaving cloth involves the manufacturing of textiles, which is part of the secondary sector. This pair is correct.

Based on the analysis:

Only two pairs are correctly matched:

B) Only two

*UPSC Prelims 2024 Solved Papers – GS Paper 1 – Question & Answers – 46 to 50*

Question-46: Consider the following materials:

1. Agricultural residues
2. Corn grain
3. Wastewater treatment sludge
4. Wood mill waste

Which of the above can be used as feedstock for producing Sustainable Aviation Fuel?

A) 1 and 2 only

B) 3 and 4 only
C) 1, 2, 3 and 4
D) 1, 3 and 4 only

Answer: (C)

Question-47: With reference to physical capital in Indian economy, consider the following pairs:

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

A) Only one

B) Only two
C) Only three
D) All four

Answer: (B)
Let’s analyze each pair of items and their corresponding category in the context of physical capital:

• Farmer’s plough – Working capital
  • A farmer’s plough is a tool used in agricultural activities and is considered part of fixed capital because it is a durable asset used repeatedly over time. This pair is incorrect.
• Computer – Fixed capital
  • A computer is a durable asset used for production purposes over an extended period. It falls under fixed capital. This pair is correct.
• Yarn used by the weaver – Fixed capital
  • Yarn used by a weaver is considered working capital because it is a consumable item used in the production process. This pair is incorrect.
• Petrol – Working capital
  • Petrol is a consumable resource used for immediate consumption or operation. It is considered working capital. This pair is correct.

Based on the analysis:

Two pairs are correctly matched:

B) Only two

Question-48: Which one of the following words / phrases is most appropriately used to denote “an interoperable network of 3D virtual worlds that can be accessed simultaneously by millions of users, who can exert property rights over virtual items”?

A) Big data analytics

B) Cryptography
C) Metaverse
D) Virtual matrix

Answer: (C)

Question-49: With reference to the rule / rules imposed by the Reserve Bank of India while treating foreign banks, consider the following statements:

1. There is no minimum capital requirement for wholly owned banking subsidiaries in India.
2. For wholly owned banking subsidiaries in India, at least 50 % of the board members should be Indian nationals.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

A) 1 only

B) 2 only
C) Both 1 and 2
D) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (B)
Let’s analyze each statement regarding the rules imposed by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) for foreign banks operating as wholly owned banking subsidiaries in India:

• There is no minimum capital requirement for wholly owned banking subsidiaries in India.
  • This statement is incorrect. The RBI imposes a minimum capital requirement for foreign banks establishing wholly owned subsidiaries in India. The capital requirement ensures financial stability and adequacy for banking operations.
• For wholly owned banking subsidiaries in India, at least 50% of the board members should be Indian nationals.
  • This statement is correct. The RBI requires that at least 50% of the board members of wholly owned banking subsidiaries in India should be Indian nationals. This requirement ensures local representation and governance in the operations of these banks.

Based on the analysis:

• Statement 1 is incorrect.
• Statement 2 is correct.

Therefore, the correct option is:

B) 2 only

Question-50: With reference to Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) rules in India, consider the following statements:

1. CSR rules specify that expenditures that benefit the company directly or its employees will not be considered as CSR activities.
2. CSR rules do not specify minimum spending on CSR activities.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

A) 1 only

B) 2 only
C) Both 1 and 2
D) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (A)

*UPSC Prelims 2024 Solved Papers – GS Paper 1 – Question & Answers – 51 to 55*

Question-51: Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: If the United States of America ( USA ) were to default on its debt, holders of US Treasury Bonds will not be able to exercise their claims to receive payment.

Statement-II: The USA Government debt is not backed by any hard assets, but only by the faith of the Government.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

A) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I

B) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
C) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
D) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

Answer: (D)

Question-52: Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Syndicated lending spreads the risk of borrower default across multiple lenders.

Statement-II: The syndicated loan can be a fixed amount / lump sum of funds, but cannot be a credit line.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

A) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I

B) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
C) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
D) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

Answer: (C)

Question-53: Consider the following statements in respect of the digital rupee:

1. It is a sovereign currency issued by the Reserve Bank of India ( RBI ) in alignment with its monetary policy.
2. It appears as a liability on the RBI’s balance sheet.
3. It is insured against inflation by its very design.
4. It is freely convertible against commercial bank money and cash.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A) 1 and 2 only

B) 1 and 3 only
C) 2 and 4 only
D) 1, 2 and 4

Answer: (D)

Question-54: With reference to ancient India, Gautama Buddha was generally known by which of the following epithets?

1. Nayaputta
2. Shakyamuni
3. Tathagata

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A) 1 only

B) 2 and 3 only
C) 1, 2 and 3
D) None of the above are epithets of Gautama Buddha

Answer: (B)
Let’s identify which epithets were associated with Gautama Buddha in ancient India:

• Nayaputta
  • This epithet is not commonly associated with Gautama Buddha.
• Shakyamuni
  • Shakyamuni is an epithet commonly used to refer to Gautama Buddha. It means “Sage of the Shakya clan,” indicating his lineage.
• Tathagata
  • Tathagata is another epithet used for Gautama Buddha. It means “Thus Gone” or “One who has thus come,” referring to his enlightened state.

Based on this analysis:

• Shakyamuni and Tathagata are epithets associated with Gautama Buddha.
• Nayaputta is not an epithet associated with Gautama Buddha.

Therefore, the correct answer is:

B) 2 and 3 only

Question-55: Consider the following information:

Which of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?

A) 1 and 2

B) 2 and 3
C) 3 and 4
D) 1 and 4

Answer: (B)

*UPSC Prelims 2024 Solved Papers – GS Paper 1 – Question & Answers – 56 to 60*

Question-56: Who of the following rulers of medieval India gave permission to the Portuguese to build a fort at Bhatkal?

A) Krishnadevaraya

B) Narasimha Saluva
C) Muhammad Shah III
D) Yusuf Adil Shah

Answer: (A)

Question-57: With reference to revenue collection by Cornwallis, consider the following statements:

1. Under the Ryotwari Settlement of revenue collection, the peasants were exempted from revenue payment in case of bad harvests or natural calamities.
2. Under the Permanent Settlement in Bengal, if the Zamindar failed to pay his revenues to the state, on or before the fixed date, he would be removed from his Zamindari.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

A) 1 only

B) 2 only
C) Both 1 and 2
D) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (B)

Question-58: Consider the following statements:

1. There are no parables in Upanishads.
2. Upanishads were composed earlier than the Puranas.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

A) 1 only

B) 2 only
C) Both 1 and 2
D) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (B)

Question-59: Consider the following statements:

1. India is a member of the International Grains Council.
2. A country needs to be a member of the International Grains Council for exporting or importing rice and wheat.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

A) 1 only

B) 2 only
C) Both 1 and 2
D) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (A)

Question-60: Which one of the following was the latest inclusion in the Intangible Cultural Heritage List of UNESCO?

A) Chhau dance

B) Durga puja
C) Garba dance
D) Kumbh mela

Answer: (C)

*UPSC Prelims 2024 Solved Papers – GS Paper 1 – Question & Answers – 61 to 65*

Question-61: Who was the Provisional President of the Constituent Assembly before Dr. Rajendra Prasad took over?

A) C. Rajagopalachari

B) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
C) T.T. Krishnamachari
D) Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha

Answer: (D)

Question-62: With reference to the Government of India Act, 1935, consider the following statements:

1. It provided for the establishment of an All India Federation based on the union of the British Indian Provinces and Princely States.
2. Defence and Foreign Affairs were kept under the control of the federal legislature.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

A) 1 only

B) 2 only
C) Both 1 and 2
D) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (A)

Question-63: Which one of the following is a work attributed to playwright Bhasa?

A) Kavyalankara

B) Natyashastra
C) Madhyama-vyayoga
D) Mahabhashya

Answer: (C)

Question-64: Sanghabhuti, an Indian Buddhist monk, who travelled to China at the end of the fourth century AD, was the author of a commentary on:

A) Prajnaparamita Sutra

B) Visuddhimagga
C) Sarvastivada Vinaya
D) Lalitavistara

Answer: (C)

Question-65: Consider the following properties included in the World Heritage List released by UNESCO:

1. Shantiniketan
2. Rani-ki-Vav
3. Sacred Ensembles of the Hoysalas
4. Mahabodhi Temple Complex at Bodhgaya.

How many of the above properties were included in 2023?

A) Only one

B) Only two
C) Only three
D) All four

Answer: (B)
Recently, UNESCO has added two of them to the world heritage site list:

1. Shantiniketan, West Bengal, India
2. Sacred Ensembles of the Hoysalas

*UPSC Prelims 2024 Solved Papers – GS Paper 1 – Question & Answers – 66 to 70*

Question-66: As per Article 368 of the Constitution of India, the Parliament may amend any provision of the Constitution by way of:

1. Addition
2. Variation
3. Repeal

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A) 1 and 2 only

B) 2 and 3 only
C) 1 and 3 only
D) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (D)

Question-67: Consider the following countries

1. Italy

2. Japan

3. Nigeria

4. South Korea

5. South Africa

Which of the above countries are frequently mentioned in the media for their low birth rates, or ageing population or declining population?

A) 1, 2 and 4

B) 1, 3 and 5
C) 2 and 4 only
D) 3 and 5 only

Answer: (A)

These countries are frequently mentioned in the media for low birth rates, ageing population, or declining population:

• Italy
• Japan
• South Korea

So the answer is:  A) 1, 2 and 4

Here’s some background:

• Italy, Japan, and South Korea all have very low birth rates, which means the average number of children a woman has in her lifetime is well below replacement level (typically around 2.1 children per woman). This is leading to their populations ageing rapidly.
• Nigeria has a high birth rate, but its population growth is still projected to slow down in the coming decades due to factors like improving healthcare and education for women.
• South Africa also has a relatively high birth rate, but faces challenges like HIV/AIDS that can affect population growth.

Question-68: Which of the following statements are correct in respect of a Money Bill in the Parliament?

1. Article 109 mentions special procedure in respect of Money Bills.
2. A Money Bill shall not be introduced in the Council of States.
3. The Rajya Sabha can either approve the Bill or suggest changes but cannot reject it.
4. Amendments to a Money Bill suggested by the Rajya Sabha have to be accepted by the Lok Sabha.

Select the answer using the code given below:

A) 1 and 2 only

B) 2 and 3 only
C) 1, 2 and 3
D) 1, 3 and 4

Answer: (C)

Question-69: Which of the following is / are correctly matched in terms of equivalent rank in the three services of Indian Defence forces?

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A) 1 and 4

B) 1 and 3
C) 2, 3 and 4
D) 3 only

Answer: (D)

Question-70: The North Eastern Council ( NEC ) was established by the North Eastern Council Act, 1971. Subsequent to the amendment of NEC Act in 2002, the Council comprises which of the following members?

1. Governor of the Constituent State
2. Chief Minister of the Constituent State
3. Three Members to be nominated by the President of India
4. The Home Minister of India

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A) 1, 2 and 3 only

B) 1, 3 and 4 only
C) 2 and 4 only
D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (D)

*UPSC Prelims 2024 Solved Papers – GS Paper 1 – Question & Answers – 71 to 75*

Question-71: How many Delimitation Commissions have been constituted by the Government of India till December 2023?

A) One

B) Two
C) Three
D) Four

Answer: (D)
Here are the details of each Delimitation Commission constituted by the Government of India:

First Delimitation Commission

• Constituted: In 1952
• Purpose: To readjust the boundaries of parliamentary and assembly constituencies based on the 1951 Census.

Second Delimitation Commission

• Constituted: In 1963
• Purpose: To readjust the boundaries of parliamentary and assembly constituencies based on the 1961 Census.

Third Delimitation Commission

• Constituted: In 1973
• Purpose: To readjust the boundaries of parliamentary and assembly constituencies based on the 1971 Census.

Fourth Delimitation Commission

• Constituted: In 2002
• Purpose: To readjust the boundaries of parliamentary and assembly constituencies based on the 2001 Census.

Question-72: The Constitution ( 71st Amendment ) Act, 1992 amends the Eighth Schedule to the Constitution to include which of the following languages?

1. Konkani
2. Manipuri
3. Nepali
4. Maithili

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A) 1, 2 and 3

B) 1, 2 and 4
C) 1, 3 and 4
D) 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (A)

Question-73: Consider the following pairs

How many of the above are correctly matched?

A) Only one

B) Only two
C) Only three
D) All four

Answer: (B)

• Bharatiya Jana Sangh – Dr. Shyama Prasad Mukherjee
  • This pair is correctly matched. Dr. Shyama Prasad Mukherjee was indeed associated with the Bharatiya Jana Sangh.
• Socialist Party – C. Rajagopalachari
  • This pair is incorrect. C. Rajagopalachari was not associated with the Socialist Party in India but with Swatantra Party.
• Congress for Democracy – Jagjivan Ram
  • This pair is correctly matched. Jagjivan Ram was associated with the Congress for Democracy.
• Swatantra Party – Acharya Narendra Dev
  • This pair is incorrect. Acharya Narendra Dev was not associated with the Swatantra Party but to the Socialist Party.

Based on the analysis:

Only two pairs are correctly matched:

B) Only two

Question-74: Which of the following statements are correct about the Constitution of India?

1. Powers of the Municipalities are given in Part IX A of the Constitution.
2. Emergency provisions are given in Part XVIII of the Constitution.
3. Provisions related to the amendment of the Constitution are given in Part XX of the Constitution.

Select the answer using the code given below:

A) 1 and 2 only

B) 2 and 3 only
C) 1 and 3 only
D) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (D)

Question-75: Which one of the following statements is correct as per the Constitution of India?

A) Inter-State trade and commerce is a State subject under the State List.

B) Inter-State migration is a State subject under the State List.
C) Inter-State quarantine is a Union subject under the Union List.
D) Corporation tax is a State subject under the State List.

Answer: (C)

*UPSC Prelims 2024 Solved Papers – GS Paper 1 – Question & Answers – 76 to 80*

Question-76: Under which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India, has the Supreme Court of India placed the Right to Privacy?

A) Article 15

B) Article 16
C) Article 19
D) Article 21

Answer: (D)
The Supreme Court of India has recognized the Right to Privacy under Article 21 of the Constitution of India. Article 21 guarantees the protection of life and personal liberty, stating that “No person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty (Right to Privacy) except according to procedure established by law.”

Therefore, the correct answer is:

D) Article 21

Question-77: What are the duties of the Chief of Defence Staff ( CDS ) as Head of the Department of Military Affairs?

1. Permanent Chairman of Chiefs of Staff Committee
2. Exercise military command over the three Service Chiefs
3. Principal Military Advisor to Defence Minister on all tri-service matters

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A) 1, 2 and 3

B) 1 and 2 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1 and 3 only

Answer: (D)

Question-78: Operations undertaken by the Army towards upliftment of the local population in remote areas to include addressing of their basic needs is called:

A) Operation Sankalp

B) Operation Maitri
C) Operation Sadbhavana
D) Operation Madad

Answer: (C)

Question-79: The longest border between any two countries in the world is between:

A) Canada and the United States of America

B) Chile and Argentina
C) China and India
D) Kazakhstan and Russian Federation

Answer: (A)

Question-80: Which of the following statements about the Ethics Committee in the Lok Sabha are correct?

1. Initially it was an ad-hoc Committee.
2. Only a Member of the Lok Sabha can make a complaint relating to unethical conduct of a member of the Lok sabha.
3. This Committee cannot take up any matter which is sub-judice.

Select the answer using the code given below:

A) 1 and 2 only

B) 2 and 3 only
C) 1 and 3 only
D) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (C)

*UPSC Prelims 2024 Solved Papers – GS Paper 1 – Question & Answers – 81 to 85*

Question-81: Consider the following statements regarding ‘ Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam’:

1. Provisions will come into effect from the 18th Lok Sabha.
2. This will be in force for 15 years after becoming an Act.
3. There are provisions for the reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes Women within the quota reserved for the Scheduled Castes.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A) 1, 2 and 3

B) 1 and 2 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1 and 3 only

Answer: (C)

Question-82: Which of the following statements about ‘ Exercise Mitra Shakti-2023 ‘ are correct?

1. This was a joint military exercise between India and Bangladesh.
2. It commenced in Aundh (Pune).
3. Joint response during counter-terrorism operations was a goal of this operation.
4. Indian Air Force was a part of this exercise.

Select the answer using the code given below:

A) 1, 2 and 3

B) 1, 2 and 4
C) 1, 3 and 4
D) 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (D)

Question-83: A Writ of Prohibition is an order issued by the Supreme Court or High Courts to:

A) A government officer prohibiting him from taking a particular action.

B) The parliament / legislative assembly to pass a law on prohibition.
C) The lower court prohibiting continuation of proceedings in a case.
D) The government prohibiting it from following an unconstitutional policy.

Answer: (C)

Question-84: Consider the following statements:

1. It is the Governor of the State who recognizes and declares any community of that State as Scheduled Tribe.
2. A community declared as a Scheduled Tribe in a State need not be so in another State.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

A) 1 only

B) 2 only
C) Both 1 and 2
D) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (B)

Question-85: With reference to Union Budget, consider the following statements:

1. The Union Finance Minister on behalf of the Prime Minister lays the Annual Financial Statement before both the Houses of Parliament.
2. At the Union level, no demand for a grant can be made except on the recommendation of the President of India.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

A) 1 only

B) 2 only
C) Both 1 and 2
D) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (B)

*UPSC Prelims 2024 Solved Papers – GS Paper 1 – Question & Answers – 86 to 90*

Question-86: Who of the following is the author of the books “The India Way” and “Why Bharat Matters”?

A) Bhupender Yadav

B) Nalin Mehta
C) Shashi Tharoor
D) Subrahmanyam Jaishankar

Answer: (D)

Question-87: Consider the following pairs:

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

A) Only one pair

B) Only two pairs
C) All three pairs
D) None of the pairs

Answer: (B) Only Argentina and Sudan

Question-88: Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Sumed pipeline is a strategic route for Persian Gulf oil and natural gas shipments to Europe.

Statement-II: Sumed pipeline connects the Red Sea with the Mediterranean Sea.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

A) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I

B) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
C) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
D) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

Answer: (A)

Question-89: Consider the following statements:

1. The Red Sea receives very little precipitation in any form.
2. No water enters the Red Sea from rivers.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

A) 1 only

B) 2 only
C) Both 1 and 2
D) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (C)

Question-90: According to the Environmental Protection Agency ( EPA ), which one of the following is the largest source of sulphur dioxide emissions?

A) Locomotives using fossil fuels

B) Ships using fossil fuels
C) Extraction of metals from ores
D) Power plants using fossil fuels

Answer: (D)

*UPSC Prelims 2024 Solved Papers – GS Paper 1 – Question & Answers – 91 to 95*

Question-91: Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: There is instability and worsening security situation in the Sahel region.

Statement-II: There have been military takeovers / coups d’état in several countries of the Sahel region in the recent past.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

A) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I

B) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
C) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
D) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

Answer: (A)

Question-92: Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: India does not import apples from the United States of America.

Statement-II: In India, the law prohibits the import of Genetically Modified food without the approval of the competent authority.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

A) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I

B) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
C) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
D) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

Answer: (D)

Question-93: With reference to the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, consider the following statements:

While any resolution for the removal of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha is consideration under

1. He / She shall not preside.
2. He / She shall not have the right to speak
3. He / She shall not be entitled to vote on the resolution in the first instance.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

A) 1 only

B) 1 and 2 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (A)
Let’s revisit and verify each statement regarding the Speaker of the Lok Sabha during the consideration of a resolution for their removal:

• He / She shall not preside.
  • This statement is correct. During the consideration of a resolution for the removal of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, the Speaker does not preside over the proceedings. Instead, the Deputy Speaker or, in their absence, another member chosen by the House presides.
• He / She shall not have the right to speak.
  • This statement is incorrect. The Speaker, while the resolution for their removal is being considered, does have the right to speak on the matter if they wish to do so.
• He / She shall not be entitled to vote on the resolution in the first instance.
  • This statement is incorrect. The Speaker does have the right to vote on the resolution for their own removal. However, they generally do not vote unless there is a tie, or their vote can change the result.

Based on the analysis:

Only statement 1 is correct.

Therefore, the correct answer is:

A) 1 only

Question-94: With reference to the Indian Parliament consider the following statements:

1. A bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses on its dissolution.
2. A bill passed by the Lok Sabha and pending in the Rajya Sabha lapses on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.
3. A bill in regard to which the President of India notified his / her intention to summon the Houses to a joint sitting lapses on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

A) 1 only

B) 1 and 2
C) 2 and 3
D) 3 only

Answer: (B)

Question-95: With reference to the Parliament of India, consider the following statements:

1. Prorogation of a House by the President of India does not require the advice of the Council of Ministers.
2. Prorogation of a House is generally done after the House is adjourned sine die but there is no bar to the President of India prorogating the House which is in session.
3. Dissolution of the Lok Sabha is done by the President of India who, save in exceptional circumstances, does so on the advice of the Council of Ministers.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

A) 1 only

B) 1 and 2
C) 2 and 3
D) 3 only

Answer: (C)

*UPSC Prelims 2024 Solved Papers – GS Paper 1 – Question & Answers – 96 to 100*

Question-96: Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: The European Parliament approved The Net-Zero Industry Act recently.

Statement-II: The European Union intends to achieve carbon neutrality by 2040 and therefore aims to develop all of its own clean technology by that time.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

A) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I

B) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
C) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
D) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

Answer: (C)

Question-97: Consider the following statements

Statement-I: Recently, Venezuela has achieved a rapid recovery from its economic crisis and succeeded in preventing its people from fleeing / emigrating to other countries.

Statement-II: Venezuela has the world’s largest oil reserves.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

A) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I

B) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
C) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
D) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

Answer: (D)

Question-98: With reference to the Digital India Land Records Modernisation Programme, consider the following statements:

1. To implement the scheme, the Central Government provides 100 % funding.
2. Under the Scheme, Cadastral Maps are digitised.
3. An initiative has been undertaken to transliterate the Records of Rights from local language to any of the languages recognized by the Constitution of India.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A) 1 and 2 only

B) 2 and 3 only
C) 1 and 3 only
D) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (D)

Question-99: With reference to the Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritva Abhiyan ‘, consider the following statements:

1. This scheme guarantees a minimum package of antenatal care services to women in their second and third trimesters of pregnancy and six months post-delivery health care service in any government health facility.
2. Under this scheme, private sector health care providers of certain specialities can volunteer to provide services at nearby government health facilities.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

A) 1 only

B) 2 only
C) Both 1 and 2
D) Neither 1 nor 2 1.

Answer: (B)

Question-100: With reference to the Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maan-dhan ( PM-SYM ) Yojana, consider the following  statements:

1. The entry age group for enrolment in the scheme is 21 to 40 years.
2. Age specific contribution shall be made by the beneficiary.
3. Each subscriber under the scheme shall receive a minimum pension of 3,000 per month after attaining the age of 60 years.
4. Family pension is applicable to the spouse and unmarried daughters.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

A) 1, 3 and 4

B) 2 and 3 only
C) 2 only
D) 1, 2 and 4

Answer: (B)

UPSC Prelims 2024 GS Paper – 1 Answer Key

This is the made-up answer key of UPSC Prelims 2024 GS Paper-1, by made- up Answers by PreCrack Team!

Full Solution for UPSC Prelims 2024 Civil Service Aptitude Test (CSAT) / Paper-2

These are the complete set of UPSC Prelims 2024 Question and Answers for CSAT paper or we can say the Civil Service Aptitude Paper / Prelims Paper-2.

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